In the first half of the 20th Century, the Supreme Court stretched the intent of the Constitution beyond all recognition. The historical shift that permanently expanded federal power occurred during the New Deal Era (1937). Before that point, the Supreme Court strictly limited Congress by drawing sharp lines between “local” production (like manufacturing, farming, and mining) and “interstate” commerce (the actual shipping of goods).
Frustrated by repeated legal defeats, President Roosevelt proposed the Judiciary Reorganization Bill of 1937. This plan would allow him to add up to six new, sympathetic justices to the Supreme Court. While Congress rejected the plan, the threat of packing the Court heavily pressured the sitting justices to rule his way more often. Justice Owen Roberts, a supposedly conservative justice, shifted his vote in a landmark labor case, creating a new majority that favored the expansion of Federal power. The new lever that allowed the Federal Government to insert it’s abnormally large nose into everyone’s affairs was the commerce clause.
The Constitution grants the Federal government the power to regulate commerce through the “commerce clause.” The Commerce Clause refers to Article 1, Section 8, Clause 3 of the U.S. Constitution, which gives Congress the power “to regulate commerce with foreign nations, and among the several states, and with the Indian Tribes.”
As with many things, they use the commerce clause to get their hands on powers they otherwise wouldn’t have. There were a few cases involving the commerce clause that came before it, but the one doing the most damage to state’s rights was Wickard v. Filburn (1942). I’ve blogged on this case a couple of times. That case concerned a farmer that was growing wheat for use on his own farm. He contended that he was not subject to the limits that the Federal Government had placed on wheat production, because his wheat was not sold, so it could not be regulated as commerce, let alone “interstate” commerce (described in the Constitution as “Commerce… among the several states”). The Supreme Court disagreed. They held that because he was growing his own wheat, he did not buy wheat from someone else. Since he did not buy someone else’s wheat, this affected interstate commerce and made his wheat subject to the regulations.
This court case basically says that the Feds can rule over anyone they please, without worrying about enumerated powers. All they have to do is play “six degrees of separation” to show that the behavior they wish to dictate affected interstate commerce in some way, no matter how tenuous.
The reason I bring this up today is because Justice Thomas’ concurrence in United States v. Hemani, in which he urged courts to reconsider the constitutional foundation of federal law. Thomas argued that goes too far, writing the Commerce Clause authorizes Congress only “to regulate the buying and selling of goods and services trafficked across state lines,” not “activities wholly separated from business, such as gun possession.”
This is an opinion that anyone with half a brain could see, what the gun ban crowd calls “common sense.” If I carve a toy out of wood and give it to my child, I didn’t affect interstate commerce, but those who would increase Federal powers would say it does. The same goes for making my own firearm at home, or for a felon who possesses a firearm. None of those activities affect interstate commerce, and are thus state law issues and none of the Federal government’s business.
“Congress cannot regulate the possession of every thing that ever traveled across state lines,” Thomas wrote, warning that such an interpretation risks converting Congress’ limited commerce authority into “a general police power of the sort retained by the States.”
Judge Stephen Higginson said striking down Section 922(g) would be “a significant departure from existing, settled, and binding Commerce Clause jurisprudence” and could “mark the start of a new, severely contracted Commerce Clause era.”
“Can the federal government no longer criminalize possession of child pornography? Of explosive materials? Of biological weapons?” Higginson asked. “Past the Title 18 level, do we lose regulations on financial transactions? On intellectual property? On endangered species?”
If the financial transactions, intellectual property, or child pornography crosses state lines, then yes, the Federal government may criminalize it. If not, then that would be up to the states. No one is saying these things shouldn’t be illegal- I am saying that it should be up to each state to make their own laws.
That’s what is meant by a Republic- each member of the republic retains its own identity.
9 Comments
Joe Blow · July 24, 2026 at 5:53 am
The birth of the beast we fight against today….
ghostsniper · July 24, 2026 at 6:21 am
When you carved the toy out of wood, you did NOT buy a toy at Walmart.
See how that silliness works?
Besides, are you sure that wood didn’t come from another state?
With each passing year each of us becomes less free.
TRX · July 24, 2026 at 6:27 am
> “Can the federal government no longer criminalize possession of child pornography? Of explosive materials? Of biological weapons?” Higginson asked. “Past the Title 18 level, do we lose regulations on financial transactions? On intellectual property? On endangered species?”
—
Is there supposed to be a problem with that?
The 10th Amendment says:
“The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.”
My copy of the Constitution doesn’t say anything about endangered species, kiddie porn, or financial transactions.
Explosives and biological weapons are covered by the 2nd Amendment, which put no restrictions whatsoever on “arms,” followed by “shall not be infringed.” (the only place in the Constitution where the founders added an extra warning against government overreach)
Steve S6 · July 24, 2026 at 9:56 am
And yet they allowed US manufacturing capability to die through outsourcing internationally.
Tsgt Joe · July 24, 2026 at 10:11 am
When the US came about “ these several states” functioned or existed more as separate nations than , say, provinces of one nation. Up until the civil war that viewed still prevailed. If I remember correctly people expressed their loyalty or affiliation to the individual state before the “united states”. Without getting into a spirited discussion about the rights of states to secede etc, can we function as a powerful nation without a strong unified federal govt. with common rules throughout. An example is our mishmash of state laws concerning the right to bear arms. I’m reasonably sure that most of us on this page would appreciate a uniform code for national carry. I guess, on the other hand, minimizing the role of states would give the coastal folks total charge to the disadvantage of us fly over folk. Hmm. Guess I answered my own question.
Divemedic · July 24, 2026 at 10:22 am
I would be OK with a mish mash of laws throughout the nation, as long as a basic floor of rights was respected.
oldvet50 · July 25, 2026 at 7:50 am
Wow! We already have a uniform law on carrying firearms – the 2nd amendment. We need a strong federal government that will restrain itself according to the document all states ratified.
Divemedic · July 25, 2026 at 10:29 am
A Constitutional government is only good as long as it is forced to obey that constitution. As soon as a government gains enough power to be capable of ignoring that constitution without consequence, you no longer are living in a government by the people.
GrayDog · July 24, 2026 at 4:06 pm
It has always seemed to me that. especially on the subjects of the clauses which grant the federal government constitutional authority to regulate commerce (however that word “regulate” might be interpreted) and to levy taxes, Several points are either missed, misunderstood, or completely ignored:
The Bill of Rights was enacted as a unit, an addendum, with a preamble that explains its purpose (“in order to prevent misconstruction or abuse of its powers”), and 10 separate clauses (amendments,) each of which and all together alter the previously enacted Constitution in several specific ways.
In other words (in my humble opinion) a correct and honest reading of the Commerce Clause would recognize that it contains an implied * that points to the Second Amendment and reminds the reader that nothing in the Commerce clause authorizes a regulation that infringes on the right of the people to keep and bear arms. In fact the Commerce Clause as amended by the Second Amendment absolutely forbids such a regulation.
But Congress has propounded (and the courts have so far affirmed) an illogical pretextual workaround that recognizes the Second Amendment’s right of the people to keep and bear arms (whatever that means( and then says but if anything about that right can be seen as involving commerce then we can infringe the crap out of it by wielding the Commerce Clause as though it had not been amended.
In reality. an honest and lawful understanding of the matter should recognize the Second Amendment’s explicit recognition of the pre-existing right, and then proceed to the inescapable conclusion that the Commerce Clause, nor any other clause in the Constitution enacted before the Bill of Rights, can be used as a pretext to infringement of any sort. Any regulation that proceeds from an intention to, or has an effect that, infringes upon the right to keep and bear arms, must be, de facto, extra-legal.
The courts have put the cart before the horse and purposely blinded themselves to that fact.
The Emperor has no clothes.
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