
I’m not the NRA, but I think that I can help you. I want to start with proving that the people are each and every individual who is a citizen of this country:
The first line of the Constitution says “We the People of the United States” so the collective people are the ones writing the Constitution. The very next paragraph begins with:
The House of Representatives shall be composed of Members chosen every second Year by the People
So the people are the ones electing Representatives. Do they have a collective, or an individual right to elect representatives?
The people also have a right to assemble, as outlined in the First Amendment. Is that a collective, or an individual right? In the Fourth Amendment, we find the protection of the right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures.”
So now that we have established that the people are the ones who individually elect their representatives, peaceably assemble, and are secure from unreasonable searches and seizures, is there any possibility that the writers of the Constitution and its amendments meant for the Second Amendment to refer to a different meaning of people when they wrote “the right of the people to keep and bear arms?”
I know that it is all fashionable for the left to hang its hat on the prefatory clause about militias being necessary, but this argument has been hashed out tons of times. It’s really getting old, and this argument is nothing more than partisan bullshit.



